BIO-CHEMISTRY
Q. 1 - Q. 6 carry one mark each.
Q.1 Deamination of cytosine produces
(A) Uracil
(B) Pseudouracil
(C) Hypoxanthine
(D) 5-Methyluracil.
Q.2 Which of the following hormones binds to a cell surface receptor?
(A) Estrogen
(B) Thyroid hormone
(C) Insulin
(D) Aldosterone
Q.3 Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), an autoimmune disease, is characterized by the presence of
(A) Anti-DNA antibodies
(B) Anti-thyroglobulin antibodies
(C) Anti-insulin antibodies
(D) Anti-collagen antibodies
Q.4 Optical density of 1 means
(A) 1% of the incident light is absorbed
(B) 1% of the incident light is transmitted
(C) 90% of the incident light is absorbed
(D) 90% of the incident light is transmitted
Q.5 One of the carbon atoms of a glucose molecule is [14C]-labeled. If14CO2 is released during the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl coenzyme-A, which carbon atom of glucose was radiolabeled?
(A) C3 but not C4
(B) C3 or C4
(C) C1 or C6
(D) C1 but not C6
Q.6 When yeast cells are shifted from a medium containing glycerol to glucose, an increase in the transcription of four genes involved in glucose metabolism was reported. Which of the following would be the most appropriate technique to demonstrate increased transcription of these genes?
(A) Southern hybridization
(B) Northern hybridization
(C) Western hybridization
(D) Fluorescence in situ hybridization
Q.7 - Q.24 carry two marks each.
Q.7 A mixture containing protein-1, -2, -3, -4, and -5 with molecular weights 5,000, 10,000, 25,000, 65,000, and 100,000, respectively, were separated on a Sephadex Ground Water -50 column. The order of elution of these proteins from the column will be
(A) Protein-1, Protein-2, Protein-3, Protein-4, and Protein-5
(B) Protein-5, Protein-4, Protein-3, Protein-2, and Protein-1
(C) Protein-1, -2, and -3 elute first, followed by protein-5 and -4
(D) Protein-4 and -5 elute first, followed by protein-3,-2, and -1
Q.8 The maximum number of hydrogen bonds that a molecule of water can form is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Q.9 Match the techniques mentioned in Column A with their applications given in Column B.
A B
P. PCR 1. Identification of transcription factor binding sites in
Chromatin
Q. DNA microarray 2. Identification of HIV infected patients using serum
Samples
R. ELISA 3. Isolation of mouse homologue of a yeast gene
4. Analysis of differential gene expression in cancer and
normal cells.
(A) P-4, Q-1, R-3
(B) P-3, Q-4, R-2
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-2
(D) P-3, Q-2, R-1
Q.10 A nonsense mutation in the gene encoding protein X leading to the synthesis of a truncated protein results in a slow growing strain. Mutagenesis of this strain towards the isolation of extragenic suppressors led to the isolation of a strain which grew normally and synthesized the full-length protein X. The extragenic suppressor is likely to be a gene coding for
(A) rRNA
(B) RNA polymerase
(C) tRNA
(D) Ribosomal protein
Q.11 The total radioactivity in 1 ml solution containing 0.25 mg of glycine is 1 mCi. The specific activity (mCi/millimote) of radiolabeled glycine will be
(A) 300
(B) 18.75
(C) 3000
(D) 1875
Q.12 Ten grams of butter was saponified. The non-saponifiable fraction was extracted into 25 ml of chloroform. The absorbance of this solution in a 1 cm cuvette is 0.53 at 328 nm. If the extinction coefficient (a1%) of vitamin A at this wavelength is 1550, calculate the amount of vitamin A present.
(A) 3.419 x 10-3g/100 ml
(B) 3.419 x 10-6g/100 ml
(C) 3.419 x 10-5g/100 ml
(D) 3.419 x 10-4g/100 ml
Q.13 Folate derivatives are required for the synthesis of which deoxynucleotides?
(A) Adenylate and guanylate
(B) Cytidylate and thymidylate
(C) Adenylate, guanylate and thymidylate
(D) Adenylate, guanylate and cytidylate
Q.14 Cytochrome C reductase, also called as Complex III or cytochrome bc1 complex, localized on the inner mitochondrial membrane receives electrons from ubiquinol and donates to cytochrome C. In one cycle.
(A) Two cytochrome C molecules are reduced
(B) One ubiquinol is oxidized
(C) Two ubiquinols are oxidized and one ubiquinone is reduced
(D) One cytochrome C is reduced
Q.15 Match the biological functions mentioned in Column A with the enzymes given in Column B.
A B
(P) Diacylglycerol synthesis (1) Protein kinase A
(Q) CREB phosphorylation (2) Ras
(R) GTP hydrolysis (3) Phospholipase C
(4) Phospholipase
(5) Protein kinase G
(A) P-3, Q-1, R-5
(B) P-4, Q-1, R-2
(C) P-3, Q-1, R-2
(D) P-3, Q-5, R-2
Q.16 How does haemoglobin carry carbon dioxide generated in tissues back to the lungs?
(A) By coordination with heme
(B) By forming N-terminal carbamate
(C) By forming C-terminal carbamate
(D) By linking to the epsilon-amino group of lysine
Q.17 Which of the following enzyme activities can be detected in the supernatant obtained by centrifugation of liver homogenate at 100,000 g for 1 hr at 40C?
(A) Succinate dehydrogenase
(B) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase
(C) Glycogen synthetase
(D) Aconitase
Q.18 Which of the following statements about the enzyme complexes of the electron transport
system is correct?
(A) They interact with one another via mobile electron carries
(B) They are located in the mitochondrial matrix
(C) They can not be separated from one another in a functional form
(D) They all have cytochromes
Q.19 Match the DNA binding motifs mentioned in Column A with the proteins given in Column B.
A B
(P) Zinc finger 1) c-jun
(Q) Leucine zipper 2) Growth hrmone receptor
(R) helix -turn - helix motif 3)Glucocorticoid receptor
4)Histone H1
Lambda repressor
(A) P-4 Q-5 R-1
(B)P-2 Q-5 R-4
(C)P-2 Q-1, R-5
(D)P-3, Q-1, R-5
Q.20 Which of the DNA polymerases listed below is primarilhy responsible for the de novo synthesis of new DNA strands?
(A) DNA polymerase I
(B) DNA polymerase II
(C) DNA Polymerase III
(D) DNA polymerase IV
Q.21 F1F0- ATPase in chloroplasts is located on the
(A) inner chloroplast memberance with FI facing the stroma
(B) inner chloroplast membrane with F! facing the inter- membrane space
(C) thylakoid membrance with F1 facing the stroma
(D) thylakoid membrance with F1 facign the thylakoid lumen.
Common Date Questions
Common Data for Questions 23,24: the number of protons translocated by the various vectorial proteins localized on the inner mitochondrial membrance of an organism was determined. They are as follows NADH dehydrogenase: 4, cytochrome bc1 complex:2, cytochrome aa3, complex: and F1F0- ATPase; 3. One proton is also required for the transport of inorganic phosphate into the mitochondrial matrix.
Q.23 The number of ATP molecules that can be synthesized by the oxidation of one NADH molecule is
(A) 2 (B)2.5 (C) 3 (D)3.3
Q.24 If the cytosolic NADH is transported to the matrix by the glyceraldehydes 3- phosphate shuttle, then the number of ATP s synthesized is
(A) 1.5 (B)2 (C) 2.5 (D)3.3
Linked Answer Questions :Q.25 to Q.28 carry tow marks each.
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 25 & 26 : Two mammalian cell lines were found to express either epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) alone (cell line A) or both EGFR and Ras (cell line B). These cell lines were treated with epidermal growth factor (EGF) and protein phosphorylation was examined in the membrane and cytosolic fractions using anti-phosphotyrosine and anti-phosphoserine antibodies.
Q.25 EGF-dependent tyrosine phosphorylation will be detected in
(A) Membrane and cytosolic fractions of both the cell lines
(B) Only the membrane fraction of only cell line A
(C) Only the membrane fraction of both cell lines
(D) Only the cytosolic fractions of both cell lines
Q.26 EGF-dependent serine phosphorylation will be detected in
(A) Membrane and cytosolic fractions of both the cell lines
(B) Only the membrane fraction of cell line A
(C) Only the membrane fraction of cell line B
(D) Only the cytosolic fraction of cell line A
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 27 & 28: Δ G˚'' is the symbol used to denote standared free-energy chnge of a chemical reaction in biological systems. The standard conditions are T+ 298 K, concentration of water= 55.5M, PH=7,and the reactants and products (Other than water and proton) are initially present at 1 M concentration.
Q.27 Suppose Δ
Gdenotes the free- energy change for the reaction A+B C H+ at pH 5, all other conditions being the same as the standard conditions specified above. Then
(A) Δ G= ΔG˚'' (B) Δ G= ΔG˚'' + 11.5 RT
(C) Δ G= ΔG˚''+ 4.6 RT (D) Δ G= ΔG˚'' +16.1 RT
Q.28 If ΔG˚''for the reaction is -11.7 kj/ mol and R= 8.314 kh/ mol, reaction is
(A) Endetrgonic at both 37 ˚C and 25˚ C
(B) Endetgonic at 37˚ C and exergonic at 25˚C
(C) Exetgonic at both 37 ˚C and and 25˚ C
(D) Exergonic at 37˚ C and endetgonic at 25˚ C
CHEMISTRY
Q.1-Q.6 Carry one mark each.
Q.1 On the basis of VSEPR theory, the molecule which has a linear structure is
(A) SO2 (B)N2O (C) Cl2O (D)NO2
Q.2 The geometries of [NiCl4]2- and [PdCl4]2 respectively are
(A) Tetrahedral and square planner.
(B) Both tetrahedral
(C) Both square planar
(D) Square planar and tetrahedral.
Q.3 The ionization energy of hydrogen atom in ground state is 13.6 eV. The ionization energy of LI2+ in ground state would be
(A) 1.51 eV (B) 4.53 eV (C) 40.8 eV (D).122.4 eV
Q.4 The half -life of 14 C is 5730 years. An old sample of wood contains 25% of 14 C as would be found in current living tree. The age of the sample ofwood would be
(A). 1432 years (B) 2865 Years (C)5730 Years (D)11460 Years.
Q.7 In the nuclear reaction of 23592 U with a neutron , two elements, Kr and 'Y' are formed along with three neutrons.
23592 U + 10nà9136Kr + 310n + 'Y'
the element 'Y' is
(A) 14256Ba (B) 14255Bs (C) 14256Xe (d) 14253I
Q.8 Which of the following statements is true about diatomic species He2 and He2+?
(A) He2 is stable AND He2 is stable
(B) He2 is stable AND He2 is unstable
(C) He2is unstable AND He2 is stable
(D) He2 is unstable AND He2+ is unstable.
Q.9 For the reaction A àB, the activation energy for the forward reaction is 123 kJ/mol. The activation energy for the reverse reaction is 140 kJ/mol. The enthalpy change for the forward reaction is
(A) 263 kJ/mol
(B) -263 kJ/mol
(C) 17 kJ/mol
(D) -17 kJ/mol
Q.10 The acid dissociation constant of a weak acid HA is 10-5. A 0.20 M solution of the acid HA also contains 0.10 M of salt MA2. The pH of the solution is
(A) 0.69
(B) 1.0
(C) 2.85
(D) 5.0
Q.11 The attractive part of the van der Waals interaction, -B/r6, where B is a positive coefficient and r is the distance between the molecules, is governed by
(A) dipole-dipole interaction
(B) charge-dipole interaction
(C) induced dipole-induced dipole interaction
(D) dipole-induced dipole interaction
Q.12 A fuel cell is based on the idea of the reaction H2(g)+ 1/2 O2(g) àH2O(1) generating electricity. The standard free energy change (êGround Water for this reaction at 298K is -237.13 kJ/mol. The standard cell potential for the system at 298 Karaikudi is (I Faraday= 96500 coulombs)
(A) 2.457 volts (B). 1.228 volts (C) -1.228 volts (d).-2.457 volts
Q.13 The electron - deficient molecule is
(A). N2H4 (B) C2H6 (C) B2H6 (D) . O2H2
Q.14 The complex with crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) of -0.4 êt is
(A). [TiCl4] (B). [MnCl4]2- (C). [CoCl4]2- (D) [CuCl4]2-
Q.16. The species having three unpaired electrons and tetrahedral geometry is
(A) [Co(CN)6]4-
(B) [CoCl4]2-
(C) [Ni(CN)4]2-
(D) [NiCl4]2-
Q.17 The correct arrangement of group 13 elements in terms of increasing agerage M-Cl bond energy in MCl3 compounds is
(A)Al>Ga>In>Tl
(B)Tl>In>Ga>Al
(C)Al>Ga>Tl>In
(D)Ga>In>Tl>Al
Q.18 Which of the following olefins leads to a racemic mixture of the diol product upon cis-dihydroxylation?
(A)
Q.19 The major product ‘Q’ formed in the following reaction is
Q.20 The most stable conformation of cis-1-tert-butyl-4-methylchclohexane is
Q.21 The major product ‘R’ formed in the following reaction sequence is
Q.22 The following optically active compound undergoes racemization upon reaction with NaI in acetone.
Common Data Questions
Common Data for Questions 23 & 24:
The equilibrium constant (K) for the reaction Ag2CO3(S)D Ag2O(S) + CO2(g) varies with temperature T as
T(in K) 400 500
K 1.41 x 10-2 1.41
Q.23 The standard free energy change (rG°) for the above reaction at 500 K is (R=8.314 J K-1 mol-1)
(A) -0.62 kJ/mol
(B) -1.43 kJ/mol
(C) 0.62 kJ/mol
(D) 1.43 kJ/mol
Q.24 Assuming that the standard enthalpy change (rH°) for the above reaction is constant in this temperature range, its value is
(A) 33.3 kJ/mol
(B) 76.6 kJ/mol
(C) -33.3 kJ/mol
(D) -76.6 kJ/mol
Linked Answer Questions: Q.25 to Q.28 carry two marks each.
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 25 & 26:
A solid compound X on heating produces a new solid P and a gas Q. The gas Q is absorbed by KOH.
Q.25 The gas Q is
(A) CO2 (B) O2 (C) N2 (D) NH3
Q.26 The reaction between P and water forms a new compound R. Compound R gives bleaching powder on reaction with Cl2. The compound X is
(A) NH4NO2 (B) KClO3 (C) CaCO3 (D) CuFeS2
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 27 & 28:
Q.27 The structure of ‘S’ is
Q.28 The name reaction by which the product ‘S’ may be readily prepared is
(A) Aldol condensation
(B) Benzoin condensation
(C) Claisen condensation
(D) Perkin condensation
BIOTECHNOLOGY
Q.1 – 6 carry one mark each.
1. The specific growth rate (m) of a microorganism in death phase is
(A) 0 (Zero) (B)mmax
(C) less than zero (greather than zero
2. Which of the following reagents is used for harvesting anchorage – dependent animal cells from culture vessels?
(A) Trypsin/Collagenase (B) Trypsin/Collagen
(C) Collagen/Fibronectin (D) DMSO
3. Protein binding regions of DNa are identified by one of the following techniques
(A) finger printing (B) foot printing
(C) southern blotting (D) western blotting
4. Plant secondary metabolites
(A) help to increase the growth rate of plant
(B) help in plant reproduction processes
(C) provide defense mechanisms against microbial attack
(D) make the plant susceptible to unfavorable conditions
5. Si RNA(s) interfere at
(A) transcription level (B) post – transcriptional level
(C) DNA replication level (D) translation level
6. Presence of CX2-4CXfHX3H sequence in protein suggest that it is
(A) a protein kinase (B) GTP binding protein
(C) Zinc finger protein (D) lipase
Q.7 – 24 carry two marks each
7. A protein binds to phosphocellulose column at pH7 and elutes at pH8. If the protein has to be further purified on a DEAE Sephacel column, the binding buffer should have a pH of
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8
8. Oils rich in PUFA are NOT desirable for bio – diesel production because
(A) they form epoxides in presence of oxygen
(B) they do not form epoxides in presence of oxygen
(C) they have high ignition temperature
(D) they solidify at low temperature
9. Gynogenesis is a process of development of haploid plants
(A) from a fertilized cell of female gametophyte
(B) from an unfertilized cell of female gametophyte
(C) from isolated pollen grains
(D) by selective elimination of chromosomes following distant hybridization
10. Match items in group 1 with correct examples from those in group 2
Group1 Group2
P. Catabolic product 1. Griseofulvin
Q. Bioconversion 2. Bakers yeast
R. Biosynthetic product 3. 6 – Aminopenicillanic acid
S. Cell mass 4. Ethanol
(A) P-4,Q-3,R-2,S-1 (B) P-3,Q-4,R-1,S-2
(C) P-4,Q-3,R-1,S-2 (D) P-1,Q-4,R-3,S-2
11. A bioremedial solution to reduce oxides of nitrogen and carbon in flue gases is to integrate flue gas emission to
(A) micro – algal culture (B) fish culture
(C) mushroom culture (D) seri culture
12. The respiratory coefficient for the reaction
aCHmOn+bO2+cNH3 à dCHaObNg+eH2O+fCO2 is defined as
(A) f/a (B) e/b (C) b/f (D) f/b
13. Match the methods available on World Wide Web in group 1 for performing the jobs listed in group 2
Group1 Group 2
P. Boxshade 1. Searching family data base
Q. BCM launcher 2. finding alignments
R. Prosite 3. Displaying alignments
S. PSI-BLAST 4. Searching for multiple alignments
(A) P-1,Q-3,R-2,S-4 (B) P-2,Q-3,R-2,S-4
(C) P-3,Q-4,R-1,S-4 (D) P-3,Q-2,R-1,S-4
14. Match the recombinant product in group 1 with their therapeutic application in group 2
Group1 Group2
P. Human growth hormone 1. Pituitary dwarfism
Q. Platelet growth factor 2. Chemotherapy induced
thrombocytopenia
R. Factor V111 3. Haemophilia
S. Erythroprotein 4. anaemia associated with
chronic renal failure
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(C) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
(D) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
15. Mobile genetic elements present in human genome are
(P) long interspersed elements (LINEs)
(Q) short interspersed elements (LINEs)
(R) P elements
(S) IS elements
(A) Q,R
(B) P,Q
(C) P,R
(D) Q,S
16. Match the following marker genes in group 1 with suitable selecting agent in group 2
Group 1 Group2
P. npt II 1. Glyphosate
Q. aro A 2. Phosphinothricin
R. hpt
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
(B) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
(D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
17. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and Reason [r]
Assertion: Enzymatic method of tssue dispersion is milder than chemical and mechanical metods
Reason: Enzymes work at optimal temperature and pH
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
(C) [a] is true but [r] is false
(D) [a] is false but [r] is true
18. Match each parameter in group 1 with the appropriate measuring device in group 2
Group 1 Group 2
P. Pressure 1. Photometer
Q. Foam 2. Rotameter
R. Turbidity 3. Diaphragm gauge
S. Flow rate 4. Rubber sheathed electrode
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(B) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
(D) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
19. Main functions of baffles in a bioreactor are
(P) to prevent a vortex
(Q) to increase aeration
(R) to reduce interfacial area of oxygen transfer
(S) to reduce aeration rate
(A) P,Q
(B) Q,R
(C) R,S
(D) P,S
20. How many kilograms of ethanol is produced from 1 kilogram of glucose in ethanol fermentation?
(A) 2.00
(B) 0.20
(C) 0.51
(D) 0.05
21. Meristems escape virus invasion because
(A) Vascular system is absent in the meristem
(B) Of low metabolic activity in the meristem
(C) the ‘virus inactivating system’ has low activity in the meristem
(D) of low endogenous auxin level
22. Downstream processing of an industrial process yielded a highly purified bioactive protein. This protein was subjected to cleavage by trypsin. Chromatographic separation of products resulted in 4 peptides (P, Q, R, and S) with the following amino acid sequences.
(P) phe-val-met-val-arg
(Q) ala-ala-try-gly-lys
(R) val-phe-met-ala-gly-lys
(S) phe-gly-try-ser-thr
Chemical cleavage of the same protein with cyanogenbromide and chromatographic separation resulted in three peptides (i, ii, iii) with the following sequences
(i) ala-gly-lys-phe-gly-try-ser-thr
(ii) ala-ala-pry-gly-lys-phe-val-met
(iii) val-arg-val-phe-met
The order of the peptides that gives the primary structure of the original protein is
(A) P,Q,R,S
(B) Q,P,R,S
(C) Q,R,P,S
(D) R,Q,P,S
Common data for questions 23,24;
Enzyme X converts substrates S1 and S2 (which are similar but not identical) to products P1 and P2, respectively
23. Km values of enzyme X for substrate S1 and S2 are 0.1 mM and 0.01 mM, respectively. This suggest that
(P) enzyme X has more affinity towards S1
(Q) enzyme X has low affinity towards S1
(R) enzyme X has more affinity towards S2
(S) enzyme X has low affinity towards S2
(A) P,Q
(B) R,S
(C) Q,S
(D) Q,R
24. What would happen if enzyme X is incubated with a mixture of 0.1 mM of S1 and S2?
(A) Products P1 and P2 are produced at equal concentrations
(B) Only product P2 is produced
(C) More P2 and less P1 are produced
(D) More P1 and less P2 are produced
Linked answer questions: 25 to 28 carry two marks each
Statement foe linked answer questions 25 & 26
In a fed-batch culture glucose solution is added with a floe rate of 2 m3/day. The initial volume of the culture is 6 m3.
25. the volume of culture at the end of second day (neglect loss due to vaporization) is
(A) 6 m3
(B) 8 m3
(C) 10 m3
(D) 12 m3
26. What would be the dilution rate of the system at the end of second day?
(A) 2.00
(B) 0.20
(C) 0.02
(D) 0.01
Statement foe linked answer questions 27 & 28
Absence of cellulosic cell wall, high b-carotene content and GRAS status make Dunaliella salina a good model system for producing edible vaccines. 109 cells of D.
27. if 103 cells survived after electroporation, how many cells were killed during tis process (round of to the nearest number)?
(A) 109
(B) 108
(C) 106
(D) 105
28. the antigen is expressed as transmembrane protein with a single epitope on its extracellular domain. The cells that survived (assume 100% transfection and expression of protein) were incubated with a radio labeled Fab fragment (specific activity: 100 cpm/picomole) against this epitope. After washing, the cell pellet has 1000 cpm. The average number of epitopes present on a single recombinant alga are
(A) 6 X 109
(B) 1 X 109
(C) 6 X 103
(D) 1 X 106
L : Microbiology
Q.1 - Q.6 carry one mark each.
Q.1 Reverse trancriptase used in genetic engineering was discovered by
(A) Temin & Baltimore
(B) Smith & Arber
(C) Smith & Baltimore
(D) Temin & Arber
Q.2 Infection of E.coli by bacteriophage λ is normally detected by
(A) Resistance of the bacteria to an antibiotic
(B) Growth of single colony on the agar plate
(C) The appearance of plaques or lysed bacteria on agar plates
(D) Restriction digest of the bacterial DND
Q.3 A microscope that has a total magnification of 1500X with an oil immersion lens has an ocular of power
(A) 1.5X
(B) 15X
(C) 150X
(D) 1500X
Q.4 Which of the following species shows a high resistance to radiation damage?
(A) Deinococcus
(B) Micrococcus
(C) Staphylococcus
(D) Planococcus
Q.5 Peptic ulcers are caused by
(A) Shigella sonei
(B) Giardia lambia
(C) Enterobius vermicularis
(D) Helicobacter pylori
Q.6 The evolutionary history of an organism is called
(A) Taxonomy
(B) Dendrogram
(C) Phylogeny
(D) Cladogram
Q.7-Q.24 carry two marks each.
Q.7 Which vector would be the most appropriate for cloning a 150 kb fragment of DNA?
(A) pBR322
(B) λ vector
(C) YAC
(D) BAC
Q.8 Which group of microorganisms have a high level of unsaturated fatty acids in their cell
membrane?
(A) Mesophilic
(B) Psychrophilic
(C) Thermophilic
(D) Hyperthermophilic
Q.9 Complete denitrification of nitrate results in the formation of
(A) N2
(B) NH3
(C) N2O5
(D) NH2OH
Q.10 Which of the following disease is NOT caused by the Coxsackie virus?
(A) Intestinal infection
(B) Meningitis
(C) Gingivitis
(D) Myocarditis
Q.11 Bacterial cell wall biosynthesis is inhibited by the antibiotic
(A) Vancomycin
(B) Tetracycline
(C) Chloramphenicol
(D) Erythromycin
Q.12 Match the correct combination of plasmid DNA to their properties
Plasmid DNA Property
(P) Conjugative plasmid (1) can integrate into the chromosome and
replicate when the chromosome is copied
(Q) Cryptic plasmid (2) capable of transferring itself between
prokaryotes
(R) Episome (3) Does not appear to have any function
(A) P-1,Q-3,R-2 (B) P-2,Q-3,R-1 (C) P-2,Q-1,R-3 (D) P-3,Q-2,R-1
Q.13 An Hfr bacterium is one that contains
(A) Many unusual plasmids
(B) Chromosomal material acquired from a recipient cell
(C) The ability to undergo transduction
(D) A plasmid integrated into its chromosome
Q.14 Match the following product/process to the microorganism involved
Product/Process Microorganism
(P) Bioplastics (1) Beauveria bassiana
(Q) Bioremediation (2) Thiobacillus thiooxidans
(R) Bioleaching (3) Ralstonia eutropha
(S) Biopesticide (4) Pseudomonas putida
(A) P-3,Q-2,R-4,S-1
(B) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
(C) P-3,Q-4,R-2,S-1
(D) P-1,Q-4,R-2,S-3
Q.15 Which of the following enzymes convert glucose-6 phosphate to 6-phosphoglucono-δ-lactone in the Entner-Doudoroff pathway?
(A) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
(B) Phosphoglucoisomerase
(C) Phosphoglucolactonase
(D) 6-phosphogluconate dehydrase
Q.16 The process in which a molecule is transported into the cell while being chemically altered is called
(A) Passive transport
(B) Group translocation
(C) Facilitated transport
(D) None of the above
Q.17 MacConkey agar is a type of
(A) Selective media
(B) Differential media
(C) Both selective & differential media
(D) None of these
Q.18 Which of the following modes of DNA replication are used by bacteria?
(A) Rolling circle
(B) Theta replication
(C) Bidirectional replication
(D) All of the above
Q.19 Which of the following is INCORRECT about negative staining procedure?
(A) It utilizes a stain such as Nigrosin
(B) Microorganism stain deeply
(C) Microorganisms repel the dye
(D) An acidic dye is used
Q.20 A mutation in the codon UCG to UAG is described as
(A) Nonsense mutation
(B) Silent mutation
(C) Mis-sense mutation
(D) Neutral mutation
Q.21 The ineffectiveness of many antibiotics today is closely associated with
(A) Bacteriophages
(B) F plasmids
(C) R plasmids
(D) Bacterial transformations
Q.22 Which type of cells actually secrete antibodies?
(A) T cells
(B) Macrophages
(C) Monocytes
(D) Plasma cells
Common Data Questions
Common Data for Questions 23, 24:
The 50μL of competent E.coli cells (109 CFU/mL) were transformed using 0.5ng of a 5kb plasmid DNA to which 950 μL of SOC medium was added. Only 50 μL of this was plated on a selective agar plate. After an 12h incubation at 37˚C, 90 colonies were observed.
Q.23 Calculate the efficiency of this transformation in CFU/ μg of DNA
(A) 3.6x105
(B) 3.6x106
(C) 1.8x105
(D) 1.8x106
Q.24 Calculate the percentage of transformed cells
(A) 0.36%
(B) 0.72%
(C) 3.6%
(D) 7.2%
Linked Answer Questions: Q. 25 to Q. 28 carry two marks each.
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 25 & 26:
An egg sandwich got contaminated with 10 cells of a bacterium. It was left open at 37˚C for 4 hours. It was found to contain 40960 cells.
Q.25 What is the generation time of this bacterium?
(A) 15 min
(B) 20 min
(C) 25 min
(D) 30 min
Q.26 If the initial inoculum was only 1 cell, then after 10 hours what will be the number of cells?
(A) 220
(B) 224
(C) 230
(D) 240
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 27 & 28:
A researcher desires to clone a gene (1kb) of a microorganism. Its genome size is 1.5x104 kb. The average size of its library fragment is 5kb.
Q.27 What is the ratio of genome size of the microorganism relative to average size of the fragment in the gene library?
(A) 3000
(B) 1500
(C) 45000
(D) None of these
Q.28 The genomic library was created in vectors that were transformed into bacterial cells. If there is a 95% probability of the transformation, how many recombinant bacterial colonies will have to be screened to find this particular gene?
(A) 7000
(B) 8000
(C) 9000
(D) 10000
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